Hi there,
I am estimating the relationship between growth and inequality using dynamic panel data.
Originally, I set out to do a pooled ols, random effects and fixed effects regression. Within this I was using GDP per capita at the beginning of the period as an endogenous variable.
However I am now estimating using GMM xtabond2 command. The literature suggests to use the lagged dependent variable as an instrument. I want to know whether I can still use GDP per capita at the beginning of the period as an endogenous instrument as opposed to growth in the last period.
I am now thinking there are 3 possible regression I could run:
(1) xi: xtabond2 GDPgrowth laggedGDPpc initialgini initialginisq educ pppi i.year, gmm(laggedGDPpc) iv(initialgini initialginisq educ pppi i.year) noleveleq nodiffsargan robust small
(2) xi: xtabond2 GDPgrowth L1_GDPgrowth initialgini initialginisq educ pppi i.year, gmm(L1_GDPgrowth) iv(initialgini initialginisq educ pppi i.year) noleveleq nodiffsargan robust small
(3) xi: xtabond2 GDPgrowth L1_GDPgrowth laggedGDPpc initialgini initialginisq educ pppi i.year, gmm(L1_GDPgrowth laggedGDPpc) iv(initialgini initialginisq educ pppi i.year) noleveleq nodiffsargan robust small
(1) uses initial GDP p/capita. (2) uses lagged GDP growth (the lagged dependent variable). (3) uses both as instruments. They all give fairly similar results...
Which would be best regression to run?
MAIN QUESTION: can I use lagged GDP p/capita as an endogenous instrument or do I have to directly use the lagged dependent variable, in this case lagged GDP growth?
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