I very ensure about following interpretations, hence I would be very thankful for any advice. Let's say that my dependent variable is a percentage of managers in total employment ((managers employed in year t / total employment in year t)*100). I am estimating fixed effects model and I get the following results:
Code:
xtreg managers using_computer ln(RD) price_computer no_degree i.t1, fe vce(cluster industry1) Fixed-effects (within) regression Number of obs = 120 Group variable: industry1 Number of groups = 10 R-sq: Obs per group: within = 0.2400 min = 12 between = 0.7121 avg = 12.0 overall = 0.7001 max = 12 F(4,9) = 4.79 corr(u_i, Xb) = 0.7263 Prob > F = 0.0240 (Std. Err. adjusted for 10 clusters in industry1) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Robust nonrout | Coef. Std. Err. t P>|t| [95% Conf. Interval] ---------------+---------------------------------------------------------------- using_computer | .1085054 .0381358 2.85 0.019 .0222363 .1947746 price_computer | .0019326 .0133758 0.14 0.888 -.0283255 .0321907 no_d | -.2675485 .0799442 -3.35 0.009 -.4483948 -.0867022 1.t1 | -.7452374 .5176425 -1.44 0.184 -1.916226 .4257513 _cons | 56.46781 2.910799 19.40 0.000 49.88313 63.0525
In general - if both dependent and independent variable is in percentages (or as an index ) , does it mean I can interpret the coefficients the same way as when variables are in logs? That is "for percentage increase in x..., y increases by .. percentage points"?
(2) In addition, if "t1" is a dummy variable = 1 for the time of the crises - does it mean that during crises share of managers decreases by 0.7 percentage points? (if it was significant )
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