Hello STATALISTERS,
I am estimating the effects of a program using the fixed effects model in which treatment effect is given as a = Y(I)-Y(0), where Y(I) and Y(0) are respectively the observed and unobserved outcomes.
In my specification, the outcome variable is in log.
Question:
(i). Would it be correct to interpret the treatment effect, a, as the percentage points>
(ii). If yes to (i), how can convert it to percent?
My question may be pretty basic, but it is crucial for me to be sure I am doing the right thing.
Thank you!
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