Hello,
Hope you all are well.
I have a question regarding the use of lincom in finding the mean difference in salary before and after a training intervention.
I have read up on lincom and from what i understood, it is a postestimation command mainly used after the mean command.
What I would like to ask is for example, without running a regression, if we want to calculate means directly from a variables, would that still mean that we use lincom like
lincom mean2- mean1
and if we wanted to do this gender wise then how will the gender variable be used with the above command (if correct)?
Thank you.
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