Hello,

Hope you all are well.

I have a question regarding the use of lincom in finding the mean difference in salary before and after a training intervention.

I have read up on lincom and from what i understood, it is a postestimation command mainly used after the mean command.

What I would like to ask is for example, without running a regression, if we want to calculate means directly from a variables, would that still mean that we use lincom like

lincom mean2- mean1

and if we wanted to do this gender wise then how will the gender variable be used with the above command (if correct)?

Thank you.