Hi,
I have a reverse causation system. Y1 = f(Y2, X) and Y2 =g(Y1, Z). Using IV both reverse casuation coefficients (Y2 in Y1 and Y1 in Y2) are statisitically signfcant. However, when I apply the Hausman test to the Y1 equation it is insignficant and suggests no endogenity issue. Does this make sense? Any explanation with supporting literarure would be appreciated .
Cheers, Eddie
Related Posts with Hausman Endogenity Test
Is there a way to make Python stop on error when running PyStata ?Suppose I have the following (toy) code Code: import stata_setup stata_setup.config("C:/Program Fil…
Discrete Choice Experiment - Fractonnial factorial designDear collegues, As PhD student, I want to set up a Discrete Choice Experiment in a consumers survey…
Merging problem of congressional district data with countiesThis is my one set of data where I have statefip , district ( which stands for congressional distric…
Create empty graph in a loopDear Statlisters, I have a series of graphs made in a loop which are then amalgamated using grc1leg …
Changing an estimation stored macro with a previously stored macroI am trying to change an estimation stored macro with the stored result from the previous estimation…
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
0 Response to Hausman Endogenity Test
Post a Comment