Dear all,

I would very much appreciate your thoughts on the following question: I have the data on the income of one children cohort and the income of their fathers. Is it possible to replace the copula of the joint income distribution with a known copula of a different sample and simulate how the marginal distribution of the children income would change? The intention of the analysis is to show how the children income distribution would look like if there is the same level of social mobility like in the United States. I would use the US copula as measure of social mobility. Or would you go for a different approach?

Best wishes