I ran a logistic regression to look at the difference of an outcome ( low birth weight infant) among women with recurrent Preeclampsia.
The reference group is No preeclampsia in either pregnancy,
my first category is nonrecuurent preeclampsia ( which means preeclampsia in pregnancy 1 but NOT pregnancy 2), and
second category is reccurent preecalampsia ( preeclampsia in pregnancy 1 and 2)

see screen shot.

I understand that the odds ratios are compared to the reference group, but how do I compare group 2 to group 1?

thanks!