Hi all,
I am running a regression using data on individuals from different countries. All variables vary across individuals and over time, except for one (call it x) which changes across countries and over time (i.e. it takes the same value for all individuals in a particular country and in a particular period). My regression includes as well country and time fixed effects using the factor notation "i.year i.country".
When I interact country and time to create a country-specific linear time trend (including the code "i.country##c.year" in place of "i.year i.country") Stata still gives me an estimate for the effect of x, which makes I assume it makes sense since x does not follow a linear trend over time. However, when interact country and time allowing for non-linear country-specific time trends (using the code "i.country##i.year"), Stata still gives me an estimate for the effect of x.
How is that possible? Shouldn't drop x because of collinearity with the country-specific time dummies? Any help with this is much appreciated!
Thanks,
Eduard
Related Posts with Help with understanding country-specific time trends
How margins handles the atmeans optionAsking my students to use the margins command after mlogit for computing marginal effects (using dyd…
egen mean_var = mean(var), by(xx & xx)Hi How do I generate a mean variable sorted by both year and origin? I want to generate the mean v…
Predict after xtlogitI am using xtlogit with fe options. I notice that the results drop some observations due to all posi…
How to convert numeric date variable?Current format for date is %td and numeric The date is shown as 04feb2017 and I want to change it t…
Parallel trend assumption in Diff and Diff methodHi, Currently, I am working with CPS monthly microdata from https://ceprdata.org/cps-uniform-dat.../…
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
0 Response to Help with understanding country-specific time trends
Post a Comment