Hello everyone,
I am running an analysis to see if serum cholesterol together with sex, DBP, and Age are associated with number of heart attacks. I started off by checking for the assumption of (mean=variance) and noticed that its better to work with negative binomial regression due to overdispersion.
I went on to fit the model and zero inflated negative binomial regression turned out to be the best model I could work with.
Compared the -2LL and noticed the full model was better than the reduced model. However am stuck on how to proceed to the next step of dropping all insignificant interaction terms, which p-values to consider in the model and how i can fit my model.
Kindly help me out.
Thanks
Related Posts with Zero inflated negative binomial regression vs negative binomial regression
non parametric regression discontinuity with interaction termi am writing to ask if is it possible to do a non parametric regression discontinuity with an intera…
Fractional polynomials and nonlinear least-squares estimationIs there a fundamental reason why fractional polynomials (either -fp- or -mfp-) are not allowed when…
Fixed effect xtreg - Panel data - P-valueHey everyone, I'm trying to find the regression of my panel dataset. I'm trying to calculate the re…
Last observation of daily data for each monthDate IV 3/1/2000 27.81 3/2/2000 24.46 3/3/2000 22.65 3/6/2000 22.38 3/7/2000 26.36 3/8/2000 27.42 3/…
Problem regarding imputation of missing valueHii I am working on self reported cross section data set. Most of the variable are ordinal in nature…
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
0 Response to Zero inflated negative binomial regression vs negative binomial regression
Post a Comment