Hello,
I have a quick question regarding the pre-treatment effect and I would appreciate to get an expert opinion on that.
Let's assume I compare 2 groups of firms regarding their sales. One adopted ICT the other one did not.
Let's further assume I have a positive pre-treatment effect. Is it correct if I therefore conclude that 'those firms who adopted ICT had on average already higher sales before their ICT adoption'?
Kind regards
Dominik
Related Posts with Pre-treatment effect interpretation
Category omitted from fixed effect when running regressionI am having a confusing problem -- when I ran my code last week, everything was normal. Now, not so …
Testing measurement invariance across two groups/endless iterations when fitting the modelI am trying to test measurement invariance for a scale with 20 items loading 4 latent variables (no …
Opening Excel file exported by etableIn the example below, when I click results.xlsx, the file tries (and fails) to open using my browser…
Advice for Imputing my Control VariablesHi everyone, I hope everything is well! I'm reaching out because I read some guidance on imputing b…
IV strength for two endogenous varsDear all, Greetings. I meet the below problems and hope someone could give me hints. Thank you very…
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
0 Response to Pre-treatment effect interpretation
Post a Comment