Hello,

I have a quick question regarding the pre-treatment effect and I would appreciate to get an expert opinion on that.
Let's assume I compare 2 groups of firms regarding their sales. One adopted ICT the other one did not.
Let's further assume I have a positive pre-treatment effect. Is it correct if I therefore conclude that 'those firms who adopted ICT had on average already higher sales before their ICT adoption'?

Kind regards
Dominik