Hi Statalist,
i am analyzing a dataset of performance for Footballplayers and How a transfer affects Their performance.
To do This i have gathered an overall performance-target 83 players spread on 6 seasons.
Besides that i have a dummy variable which is 1 if the player is sold at the end of the season.
my data would look like This:
season - player - performance - sold
11/12 - Ronaldo - 7,2 - 0
12/13. - Ronaldo - 7,1 - 0
13/14. - Ronaldo - 8,1 - 1 (sold in summer 2014 AFTER the season)
14/15. - Ronaldo - 6,9 - 0
15/16. - Ronaldo - 7,0 - 0
16/17. - Ronaldo - 7,2 - 0
So i want to measure How performance develops leading up to a transfer and afterwards.
to do This i have made a fixed effect model with performance as My Y
and sold as My X. My model now shows me that when sold=1 the performance for that season is higher than normal which is also the effect i would expect.
but now i am Unsure if My coefficients would biased by reverse causality and How i should address This issue?
/Martin
Related Posts with Fixed effect and reverse causality
transpose putdocx table (memtable)Dear Stata-Listener, i have a question about manipulating a table after putdocx (data), memtable. I …
"Pre Trends" for DiD with continuous treatmentDear all, I have a Difference-in-Differences (DiD) setup in which treatment intensity is clearly co…
ARCH effect after fitting GARCH(1,1)I am trying to messure volatility of return on stock index by using GARCH(1,1) but the ARCH-LM test …
FMB Newey SE errorHi, I'm trying to run the asreg dv ivs, fmb newey(int) command on my data, but i get an error messa…
What does cumul [fweight] really do?I am trying to understand the role of [fweight] in the following command Code: cumul [fweight] htt…
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
0 Response to Fixed effect and reverse causality
Post a Comment