Interpreting results: 1-standard-deviation increase in an explanatory variable

This table provides results of the analysis of the role of tax avoidance on returns. The dependent variables are Cumulative abnormal returns.

The authors state: "Economically, a 1-standard-deviation increase in tax avoidance is associated with a 0.75% (=26.2%*2.859%) more negative firm value response in Column 1".

My question is where is "26.2%" coming from? The figures in parentheses are t -statistics, and they do not report standard deviation but I assume -2.859 corresponds to one standard deviation in tax avoidance ("Tax variable"). Then why do the authors multiply the coefficient -2.859 by "26.2%"???

I'd really appreciate any help in interpreting this result.



Paper: The Value of Offshore Secrets: Evidence from the Panama Papers